"There seems nothing the British press likes more than a good house price story. Both the OECD and 'The Economist' studies quoted in The Telegraph recently use the house price to household income ratio as a consideration of affordability and sustainability of the market. Most often this is a ratio of average house prices to average incomes; I keep wondering if this ratio is itself a function of income? What follows is a first (and not that rigorous!) look at this idea."
Do extremes tell us something about future prices?